The Tides


In the second edition of "Hamlet," 1604, we find the tides of the ocean attributed, in accordance with popular opinion, to the influence of the moon.

Francis Bacon at first held the common opinion, but in 1616 he investigated the matter and in a treatise entitled De fluxu et Refluxu Maris definitely rejected the lunar theory.

Is it a coincidence that every edition of "Hamlet" published prior to 1616 the lunar theory is stated and approved, and that in every edition of this play published after 1616 it is omitted?

Will Shaksper had died in 1616, so could not have arranged for the omission of this theory in the editions of this play published after 1616.

Why should the man responsible for these later editons change his opinion at the same time that Francis Bacon did?

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